Ever notice how people use the expression, usually when claiming and attributing widespread ignorance, "God only knows…"? The upshot of it is to say: the issue is evidentially impenetrable, so only an omniscient entity could know the answer. But the expression doesn't say that. It says that God only knows, not that only God knows. If God only knows, that means that knowing is the only thing he's doing. Moreover, it doesn't say that we (or anyone else) don't know… which is what the expression was supposed to imply. Now, you can imply that by quantifying over God instead of over knowledge. So why do people say it that way, if it doesn't mean what they say?
Maybe it's because in saying "God only knows," one is actually compressing a dramatic pause, so: "God, only, knows," which would read the quantifier ranging over "God," not "knows". Any thoughts?